Passleader SY0-701 Questions are updated and all SY0-701 answers are verified by experts. Once you have completely prepared with our SY0-701 exam prep kits you will be ready for the real SY0-701 exam without a problem. We have Most recent CompTIA SY0-701 dumps study guide. PASSED SY0-701 First attempt! Here What I Did.
CompTIA SY0-701 Free Dumps Questions Online, Read and Test Now.
NEW QUESTION 1
A systems administrator needs to install a new wireless network for authenticated guest access. The wireless network should support 802. IX using the most secure encryption and protocol available.
Perform the following steps:
* 1. Configure the RADIUS server.
* 2. Configure the WiFi controller.
* 3. Preconfigure the client for an incoming guest. The guest AD credentials are:
User: guest01 Password: guestpass
Solution:
Wifi Controller SSID: CORPGUEST
SHARED KEY: Secret
AAA server IP: 192.168.1.20
PSK: Blank
Authentication type: WPA2-EAP-PEAP-MSCHAPv2 Controller IP: 192.168.1.10
Radius Server Shared Key: Secret
Client IP: 192.168.1.10
Authentication Type: Active Directory Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client SSID: CORPGUEST
Username: guest01 Userpassword: guestpass PSK: Blank
Authentication type: WPA2-Enterprise
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 2
A company recently implemented a patch management policy; however, vulnerability scanners have still been flagging several hosts, even after the completion of the patch process. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- A. The vendor firmware lacks support.
- B. Zero-day vulnerabilities are being discovered.
- C. Third-party applications are not being patched.
- D. Code development is being outsourced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Third-party applications are applications that are developed and provided by external vendors or sources, rather than by the organization itself. Third-party applications may introduce security risks if they are not properly vetted, configured, or updated. One of the most likely causes of vulnerability scanners flagging several hosts after the completion of the patch process is that third-party applications are not being patched. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patching third-party applications is essential for maintaining their security and functionality, as well as preventing attackers from exploiting known flaws.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following social engineering attacks best describes an email that is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others?
- A. Hoaxing
- B. Pharming
- C. Watering-hole
- D. Phishing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hoaxing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending false or misleading information via email or other means to trick recipients into believing something that is not true. Hoaxing emails often contain a request or an incentive for the recipients to forward the email to others, such as a warning of a virus, a promise of a reward, or a petition for a cause. The goal of hoaxing is to spread misinformation, cause panic, waste resources, or damage reputations.
A hoaxing email is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others, which can increase the reach and impact of the hoax.
NEW QUESTION 4
A security operations technician is searching the log named /vax/messages for any events that were associated with a workstation with the IP address 10.1.1.1. Which of the following would provide this information?
- A. cat /var/messages | grep 10.1.1.1
- B. grep 10.1.1.1 | cat /var/messages
- C. grep /var/messages | cat 10.1.1.1
- D. cat 10.1.1.1 | grep /var/messages
Answer: A
Explanation:
the cat command reads the file and streams its content to standard output. The | symbol connects the output of the left command with the input of the right command. The grep command returns all lines that match the regex. The cut command splits each line into fields based on a delimiter and extracts a specific field.
NEW QUESTION 5
An information security manager for an organization is completing a PCI DSS self-assessment for the first time. which of the is following MOST likely reason for this type of assessment?
- A. An international expansion project is currently underway.
- B. Outside consultants utilize this tool to measure security maturity.
- C. The organization is expecting to process credit card information.
- D. A government regulator has requested this audit to be completed
Answer: C
Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment. Any organization that accepts credit card payments is required to comply with PCI DSS.
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture Of an organi-zation by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company Or change job roles inter-nally?
- A. Provisioning resources
- B. Disabling access
- C. APIs
- D. Escalating permission requests
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disabling access is an automation use case that can enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company or change job roles internally. It can prevent unauthorized access and data leakage by revoking or modifying the access rights of employees based on their current status and role.
NEW QUESTION 7
A security analyst received the following requirements for the deployment of a security camera solution:
* The cameras must be viewable by the on-site security guards.
+ The cameras must be able to communicate with the video storage server.
* The cameras must have the time synchronized automatically.
* The cameras must not be reachable directly via the internet.
* The servers for the cameras and video storage must be available for remote maintenance via the company VPN.
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely meet the remote connectivity requirements?
- A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on
- B. Deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network that can communicate with the servers
- C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering
- D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server
Answer: B
Explanation:
A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance 3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:
A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN. C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.
References:
1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/ 3:
https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server 2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Select two).
- A. SPIM
- B. Vishing
- C. VLAN hopping
- D. Phishing
- E. DHCP snooping
- F. Tailgating
Answer: AB
Explanation:
SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems.
NEW QUESTION 9
A company owns a public-facing e-commerce website. The company outsources credit card transactions to a payment company. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the payment company?
- A. Data controller
- B. Data custodian
- C. Data owners
- D. Data processor
Answer: D
Explanation:
A data processor is an organization that processes personal data on behalf of a data controller. In this scenario, the company that owns the e-commerce website is the data controller, as it determines the purposes and means of processing personal data (e.g. credit card information). The payment company is a data processor, as it processes personal data on behalf of the e-commerce company (i.e. it processes credit card transactions).
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom
NEW QUESTION 10
A security team is engaging a third-party vendor to do a penetration test of a new proprietary application prior to its release. Which of the following documents would the third-party vendor most likely be required to review and sign?
- A. SLA
- B. NDA
- C. MOU
- D. AUP
Answer: B
Explanation:
NDA stands for Non-Disclosure Agreement, which is a legal contract that binds the parties to keep confidential information secret and not to disclose it to unauthorized parties. A third-party vendor who is doing a penetration test of a new proprietary application would most likely be required to review and sign an NDA to protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of the security team.
NEW QUESTION 11
A security analyst has been tasked with creating a new WiFi network for the company. The requirements received by the analyst are as follows:
•Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi
•The encryption keys need to change routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication
•Must be able to integrate with RADIUS
•Must not have any open SSIDs
Which of the following options BEST accommodates these requirements?
- A. WPA2-Enterprise
- B. WPA3-PSK
- C. 802.11n
- D. WPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Detailed
WPA2-Enterprise can accommodate all of the requirements listed. WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication to differentiate between users, supports the use of RADIUS for authentication, and allows for the use of dynamic encryption keys that can be changed without disrupting the users or requiring reauthentication. Additionally, WPA2-Enterprise does not allow for open SSIDs.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7: Securing Networks, p. 317
NEW QUESTION 12
A company needs to enhance Its ability to maintain a scalable cloud Infrastructure. The Infrastructure needs to handle the unpredictable loads on the company's web application. Which of the following
cloud concepts would BEST these requirements?
- A. SaaS
- B. VDI
- C. Containers
- D. Microservices
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containers are a type of virtualization technology that allow applications to run in a secure, isolated environment on a single host. They can be quickly scaled up or down as needed, making them an ideal solution for unpredictable loads. Additionally, containers are designed to be lightweight and portable, so they can easily be moved from one host to another. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Sy0-601 official Text book, page 863.
NEW QUESTION 13
An incident has occurred in the production environment.
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.
Solution:
Command Output1 = Logic Bomb
A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that executes when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date or time, or a specific user action1. In this case, the logic bomb is a script that runs every minute and checks if there is a user named john in the /etc/password file. If there is, it drops the production database using a MySQL command3. This could cause severe damage to the system and the data.
To prevent logic bombs, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also perform regular backups of your data. You should also avoid opening suspicious attachments or links from unknown sources, and use strong passwords for your accounts1.
Command Output2 = backdoorA backdoor is a type of malicious code that allows an attacker to access a system or network remotely, bypassing security measures1. In this case, the backdoor is a script that runs every time the date command is executed and prompts the user to enter their full name. Then, it opens a reverse shell connection using the nc command and downloads a virus file from a malicious website using the wget command2. This could allow the attacker to execute commands on the system and infect it with malware.
To prevent backdoors, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also update your system and applications regularly. You should also avoid executing unknown commands or scripts from untrusted sources, and use firewall rules to block unauthorized connections
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 14
A security analyst receives an alert from the company's S1EM that anomalous activity is coming from a local source IP address of 192 168 34.26 The Chief Information Security Officer asks the analyst to block the originating source Several days later another employee opens an internal ticket stating that vulnerability scans are no longer being performed property. The IP address the employee provides is 192 168.34 26. Which of the following describes this type of alert?
- A. True positive
- B. True negative
- C. False positive
- D. False negative
Answer: C
Explanation:
A false positive is a type of alert that indicates a security incident when there is none. It can be caused by misconfigured or overly sensitive security tools or systems that generate false or irrelevant alerts. In this case, the alert from the company’s SIEM that Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems was a false positive because it was triggered by a legitimate vulnerability scanning tool that uses Mimikatz as part of its functionality.
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following describes a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment?
- A. RTO
- B. MTBF
- C. MTTR
- D. RPO
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 4.6 Explain the importance of secure coding practices. Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 323.
NEW QUESTION 16
A company recently experienced a significant data loss when proprietary information was leaked to a competitor. The company took special precautions by using proper labels; however, email filter logs do not have any record of the incident. An investigation confirmed the corporate network was not breached, but documents were downloaded from an employee's COPE tablet and passed to the competitor via cloud storage. Which of the following is the best mitigation strategy to prevent this from happening in the future?
- A. User training
- B. CAsB
- C. MDM
- D. EDR
Answer: C
Explanation:
MDM stands for mobile device management, which is a solution that allows organizations to manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. MDM can help prevent data loss and leakage by enforcing policies and restrictions on the devices, such as encryption, password, app installation, remote wipe, and so on. MDM can also monitor and audit the device activity and compliance status. MDM can be the best mitigation strategy to prevent data leakage from an employee’s COPE tablet via cloud storage, as it can block or limit the access to cloud services, or apply data protection measures such as containerization or encryption. References:
https://www.blackberry.com/us/en/solutions/corporate-owned-personally-enabled https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management/
NEW QUESTION 17
After a phishing scam fora user's credentials, the red team was able to craft payload to deploy on a server. The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session
Which of the following types of attacks has occurred?
- A. Privilege escalation
- B. Session replay
- C. Application programming interface
- D. Directory traversal
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following must be in place before implementing a BCP?
- A. SLA
- B. AUP
- C. NDA
- D. BIA
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a critical component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). It identifies and prioritizes critical business functions and determines the impact of their disruption. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 10
NEW QUESTION 19
......
100% Valid and Newest Version SY0-701 Questions & Answers shared by DumpSolutions.com, Get Full Dumps HERE: https://www.dumpsolutions.com/SY0-701-dumps/ (New 0 Q&As)