1z0-974 Exam - Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials

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NEW QUESTION 1
How many tabs does the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template have?

  • A. four tabs that store data for theVRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_UNES, andVRM_PERF_OBLIG tables respectively
  • B. three tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES tables respectively
  • C. two tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES tables respectively
  • D. one tab that stores data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS table

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
When Is it required to populate the number of periods and percentage of revenue (seen in the image below) while defining a revenue scheduling rule?
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  • A. when the Deferred Revenue box is checked
  • B. when it is a business requirement
  • C. when Context Values are populated
  • D. when the Type is Fixed or Variable

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
Why Is Satisfaction Method a key element of a Performance Obligation?

  • A. because it determines whether revenue for a good or service is recognized Over Time or Point in Time
  • B. because it calculates the amount of Total Transaction Price allocated to date
  • C. because it calculates the percentage of Total Transaction Price allocated to date
  • D. because it specifies whether revenue has been fully or partially recognized for a good or service

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Which statement is NOT applicable to Performance Obligation Templates?

  • A. Oracle delivers three predefined Performance Obligation Templates,
  • B. Performance Obligation Templates are specific to the business and cannot be predefined.
  • C. Performance Obligation Templates take precedence over Performance Obligation Rules.
  • D. Performance Obligation Templates can be associated to a Revenue Price Profil

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Given Oracle Revenue Management Cloud has predefined integration with Oracle E-Business Suite Financials, which two steps are NOT part of the steps to configure EBS for integration with Revenue Management Cloud?

  • A. Apply appropriate patches to EBS.
  • B. Run the Deploy System Options process.
  • C. Set the Profile Option AR: Source System Value for Revenue Management.
  • D. Map the EBS Chart of Accounts to the Cloud General Ledger.
  • E. Set the System Options in EBS Receivables on the Revenue Management ta

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 6
Given It Is critical to capture common link values In one or more attributes on the source document lines in order to build effective Performance Obligation Identification Rules, how many User Extensible Fields does Revenue Management provide to facilitate the capture of this data?

  • A. 60 User Extensible Fields
  • B. 10 User Extensible Fields
  • C. 90 User Extensible Fields
  • D. 50 User Extensible Fields

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?

  • A. the average of your bundled price
  • B. the sum of the SSPs of the components
  • C. the list price
  • D. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two are intended uses for the Standalone Selling Price Report Dashboard?

  • A. Review performance obligations by effective period.
  • B. Diagnose revenue price profile.
  • C. Drill down to data used to derive standalone selling prices.
  • D. Monitor transaction price calculation and allocation.
  • E. Analyze standalone selling prices for one or multiple effective period

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 9
Which configuration component is Source Document Type NOT connected to?

  • A. Revenue Management System Options
  • B. Performance Obligation Template
  • C. Contract Identification Rules
  • D. Revenue Price Profile
  • E. Performance Obligation Identification Rules

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
Given Revenue Management uses the Subledger Accounting engine to create journal entries from customer contracts, which Is NOT a predefined Accounting Class?

  • A. Contract Asset
  • B. Contract Price Variance
  • C. Contract Liability
  • D. Contract Revenue
  • E. Contract Expense
  • F. Contract Clearing

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 11
Which, when transferred to a customer, allows you to recognize revenue?

  • A. a shipment
  • B. a performance obligation
  • C. an invoice
  • D. promise detail

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
What does the creation of an allocation allow you to determine?

  • A. the ability not to revise previously reported revenue for revision, corrections, and other changes
  • B. the fair value of each performance obligation
  • C. the maximum amount of revenue you can recognize soonest, postponing the minimum until later
  • D. an allocation of the expected consideration over the performance obligations as if you had sold them separately

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
A Corporation has a business requirement to build a custom Revenue Management report that users could run from the Scheduled Processes page.
Which reporting tool must be used to address this business requirement?

  • A. Smart View
  • B. Business Intelligence Publisher
  • C. Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence
  • D. Reporting Studio

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
The predefined Revenue Contract Account Activities report originally had only one output option of spreadsheet.
Which output option can you now also choose to assist In handling a large number of records?

  • A. HTML
  • B. PowerPoint
  • C. Flat File
  • D. PDF

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
Given the Standalone Selling Price Profile combines all the key setup attributes of pricing Into one place, you create all standalone selling prices from the Standalone Selling Price Profiles for all Items or groups of items.
Which three setup attributes are part of a Standalone Selling Price Profile?

  • A. Observed Standalone Selling Prices
  • B. Estimated Standalone Selling Prices
  • C. Pricing Dimension Assignment
  • D. SSP Tolerance Usage
  • E. Items

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 16
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What is the correct match sequence of the descriptions A, B and C against the titles?

  • A. B, C, A
  • B. A, C, B
  • C. C, B, A
  • D. C, A, B
  • E. A, B, C
  • F. B, A, C

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
What should E-Business Suite General Ledger and Oracle Cloud General Ledger do as part of the transition to the new standard strategy under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

  • A. Create a reporting ledger.
  • B. Create a new primary ledger.
  • C. Create a secondary ledger.
  • D. Using their existing primary ledge

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18
What are two major changes when comparing the new revenue recognition guidance under ASC 606 and IFRS 15 versus the old standard?

  • A. Revenue and performance obligation liabilities are not dependent on billing.
  • B. Revenue can be recognized for performance obligations only using the "Point in Time" approach.
  • C. Pricing estimates cannot be used In the absence of pricing data.
  • D. Expected consideration value is applicable to all industrie

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 19
A pricing dimension segment value combination is one of the factors to determine standalone selling prices. This combination is based on the pricing dimension assignment setup.
What does the pricing dimension assignment match the pricing dimension segment combination to?

  • A. pricing bands
  • B. a pricing dimension structure
  • C. the source document types
  • D. a pricing dimension structure instance

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20
In Revenue Management the Selling Amount and Allocated Amount may be different. How does
Revenue Management account for this difference?

  • A. It tracks the difference in a Discount Allocation Account at the contract line level.
  • B. It tracks the difference in a Write-off Allocation Account at the contract level.
  • C. It tracks the difference In a Discount Allocation Account at the contract level.
  • D. It Tracks the difference in a Write-Off Allocation Account at the contract line leve

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
When is it required to populate a value for Performance Satisfaction Plan In a Source Document Type?
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  • A. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Amount
  • B. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Period
  • C. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Quantity
  • D. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model Is set to Percentage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22
Which is the correct definition of the Performance Obligation Liability on the balance sheet, replacing the Deferred Revenue liability?

  • A. your invoiced goods and services less those goods and services that you have not yet delivered
  • B. your debt to customers for goods and services you are obliged to deliver to them by either party acting less your right to invoice them for those goods and services once delivered
  • C. Unearned Revenue
  • D. your debt to customers for goods and services you are obliged to deliver to them by either party acting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 23
A corporation uses a pricing policy that considers deal size to calculate price per unit for its products. For example:
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Which Price Band Segment Label would be appropriate to use in this case?

  • A. Amount Band
  • B. Deal Size Band
  • C. Set Band
  • D. Quantity Band

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24
Which setup component Is NOT connected to a Revenue Price Profile?

  • A. Contract Identification Rules
  • B. Items
  • C. Source Document Types
  • D. Pricing Dimension Segments

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 25
Your organization Is selling a warranty plan to customers that covers appliances for one year. Revenue must be recognized gradually by month until the warranty expires.
Which Revenue Scheduling Rule Type needs to be defined for the Performance Satisfaction Plan?

  • A. Fixed Schedule
  • B. Variable Schedule
  • C. Daily Revenue Rate, All Periods
  • D. Daily Revenue Rate, Partial Periods
  • E. Partial Schedule
  • F. Daily Revenue Rate

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
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