Q1. - (Topic 8)
What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?
A. Define inside and outside interfaces.
B. Define public and private IP addresses.
C. Define IP address pools.
D. Define global and local interfaces.
Answer: A
Q2. - (Topic 7)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?
A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer
Answer: E
Explanation:
The command ping uses ICMP protocol, which is a network layer protocol used to propagate control message between host and router. The command ping is often used to verify the network connectivity, so it works at the network layer.
Q3. - (Topic 4)
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?
A. RSA
B. L2TP
C. IPsec
D. PPTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or more data flows between IPSec peers.
Q4. - (Topic 4)
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the 192.168.1.2 address. In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.
Q5. - (Topic 8)
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Another benefit of using named access configuration mode is that you can add new statements to the access list, and insert them wherever you like. With the legacy syntax, you must delete the entire access list before reapplying it using the updated rules.
Q6. - (Topic 5)
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network. The SNMP framework has three parts:
+ An SNMP manager
+ An SNMP agent
+ A Management Information Base (MIB)
The SNMP manager is the system used to control and monitor the activities of network hosts using SNMP. The most common managing system is called a Network Management System (NMS). The term NMS can be applied to either a dedicated device used for network management, or the applications used on such a device. A variety of network management applications are available for use with SNMP. These features range from simple command-line applications to feature-rich graphical user interfaces (such as the CiscoWorks2000 line of products).
The SNMP agent is the software component within the managed device that maintains the data for the device and reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. The agent and MIB reside on the routing device (router, access server, or switch). To enable the SNMP agent on a Cisco routing device, you must define the relationship between the manager and the agent.
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information, which consists of collections of managed objects.
Q7. - (Topic 8)
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Answer: E
Explanation: Frames received from users in the administratively-defined VLANs are
classified or tagged for transmission to other devices. Based on rules that you define, a unique identifier (the tag) is inserted in each frame header before it is forwarded. The tag is examined and understood by each device before any broadcasts or transmissions to other switches, routers, or end stations. When the frame reaches the last switch or router, the tag is removed before the frame is sent to the target end station. VLANs that are assigned on trunk or access ports without identification or a tag are called native or untagged frames. For IEEE 802.1Q frames with tag information, the priority value from the header frame is used. For native frames, the default priority of the input port is used.
Each port on the switch has a single receive queue buffer (the ingress port) for incoming traffic. When an untagged frame arrives, it is assigned the value of the port as its port default priority. You assign this value by using the CLI or CMS. A tagged frame continues to use its assigned CoS value when it passes through the ingress port.
Q8. - (Topic 5)
Refer to the exhibit.
What statement is true of the configuration for this network?
A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The “list 1 refers to the access-list number 1.
Q9. DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
Q10. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Answer: E
Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks—those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.
Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.