400-101 Exam - CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)

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Q1. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which three statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose three.) 

A. The virtual circuit identifier is 1611 and the virtual circuit is down. 

B. The local label for the circuit is 4006. 

C. The targeted LDP session to the remote peer is up. 

D. The local label for the circuit is 1611. 

E. The virtual circuit identifier is 4006 and the virtual circuit is down. 

F. The circuit is using MPLS VC type 4. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Explanation: 

The number after the vc is the identifier, which is 1611 in this case. Here, the VC status is shown as down. 

As shown, the MPLS VC labels: local 4006, remote unassigned shows the local label used is 4006. 

The targeted LDP session is up as verified by the “Signalling protocol: LDP, peer 172.16.12.70 up” statement in the output. 

Q2. Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area? 

A. interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3) 

B. autonomous system external LSA (Type 5) 

C. router LSA (Type 1) 

D. interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4) 

Answer:

Q3. Which two statements about 802.1Q tunneling are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It requires a system MTU of at least 1504 bytes. 

B. The default configuration sends Cisco Discovery Protocol, STP, and VTP information. 

C. Traffic that traverses the tunnel is encrypted. 

D. It is supported on private VLAN ports. 

E. MAC-based QoS and UDLD are supported on tunnel ports. 

F. Its maximum allowable system MTU is 1546 bytes. 

Answer: A,E 

Q4. Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true? 

A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states. 

B. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states. 

C. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port is shut down immediately. 

D. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes into the spanning-tree inconsistent state. 

Answer:

Q5. Which three features does GETVPN support to improve deployment and scalability? (Choose three.) 

A. configuration of multiple key servers to work cooperatively 

B. allowing traffic to be discarded until a group member registers successfully 

C. local exceptions in the traffic classification ACL 

D. GDOI protocol configuration between group members and the key server 

E. redundant IPsec tunnels between group members and the key server 

F. redundant multicast replication streaming through the use of a bypass tunnel 

Answer: A,B,C 

Q6. What does a nonzero forwarding address indicate in a type-5 LSA? 

A. It indicates that this link-state ID is eligible for ECMP. 

B. It indicates that this router should have an OSPF neighbor relationship with the forwarding address before using this link-state ID. 

C. It indicates that the receiving router must check that the next hop is reachable in its routing table before using this link-state ID. 

D. It indicates that traffic can be directly routed to this next hop in shared segment scenarios where the external route source is directly connected. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The value of the forwarding address specified by the autonomous system boundary router (ASBR) can be either 0.0.0.0 or non-zero. The 0.0.0.0 address indicates that the originating router (the ASBR) is the next hop. The forwarding address is determined by these conditions: 

. The forwarding address is set to 0.0.0.0 if the ASBR redistributes routes and OSPF is not enabled on the next hop interface for those routes. 

. These conditions set the forwarding address field to a non-zero address: ASBR's next hop interface address falls under the network range specified in the router ospf command. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13682-10.html 

Q7. Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header? 

A. It identifies the signaling protocol. 

B. It identifies the codec. 

C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP. 

D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below: 

Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm 

Q8. Which problem can result when private AS numbers are included in advertisements that are sent to the global Internet BGP table? 

A. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always discarded on the Internet. 

B. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always tagged as invalid on the Internet. 

C. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers lack uniqueness, which can lead to a loss of connectivity. 

D. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are sometimes tagged as invalid on the Internet. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Private AS numbers are not meant to be used for global Internet BGP routing, as they are assigned locally and can be used by any organization. They are meant to enable BGP within a enterprise or VPN, but since these numbers can be used by any organization they are not unique and could cause connectivity loss if leaked to the Internet. 

Q9. Refer to exhibit. 

The router is unreachable using telnet. Which option is solution? 

A. Use an extended access list instead of standard access list. 

B. The transport output telnet command must be added. 

C. The VRF configuration must be completed. 

D. The “vrf-also” keyword must be added to the access-class configuration. 

Answer:

Q10. When deploying redundant route reflectors in BGP, which attribute can you configure on the route reflector to allow routes to be identified as belonging to the same group? 

A. ROUTER_ID 

B. CLUSTER_ID 

C. ORIGINATOR_ID 

D. PEER_GROUP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Together, a route reflector and its clients form a cluster. When a single route reflector is deployed in a cluster, the cluster is identified by the router ID of the route reflector. The bgp cluster-id command is used to assign a cluster ID to a route reflector when the cluster has one or more route reflectors. Multiple route reflectors are deployed in a cluster to increase redundancy and avoid a single point of failure. When multiple route reflectors are configured in a cluster, the same cluster ID is assigned to all route reflectors. This allows all route reflectors in the cluster to recognize updates from peers in the same cluster and reduces the number of updates that need to be stored in BGP routing tables. 

Reference: http://ieoc.com/forums/t/5326.aspx