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NEW QUESTION 1
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
- A. Project document updates
- B. Activity list
- C. Activity attributes
- D. Project calendars
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 2
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
- A. Develop Schedule
- B. Create VVBS
- C. Estimate Activity Resources
- D. Define Scope
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
- A. Activity network diagrams
- B. Affinity diagrams
- C. Matrix diagrams
- D. Interrelationship digraphs
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 4
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
- A. Cost right at the estimated value
- B. Cost under the estimated value
- C. Cost right at the actual value
- D. Cost over the estimated value
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 5
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
- A. Monitor and Control Project Work
- B. Perform Quality Assurance
- C. Close Project or Phase
- D. Control Scope
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 6
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
- A. Budget plan
- B. Resource plan
- C. Scope plan
- D. Strategic plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
- A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.
- B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.
- C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.
- D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycle
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 8
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
- A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
- B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
- C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
- D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stag
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
- A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
- B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
- C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
- D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 10
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
- A. 0.45
- B. 0.56
- C. 0.70
- D. 1.36
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 11
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
- A. Customer
- B. Sponsor
- C. Seller
- D. Functional manager
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 12
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
- A. Organizational process assets
- B. Enterprise environmental factors
- C. Project management processes
- D. Project scope management plan
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 13
An output of the Create WBS process is:
- A. Scope baseline.
- B. Project scope statement.
- C. Organizational process assets.
- D. Requirements traceability matri
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 14
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
- A. Plan Risk Responses
- B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
- C. Define Scope
- D. Report Performance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
- A. Parametric estimating
- B. Monte Carlo analysis
- C. Alternatives analysis
- D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 16
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
- A. Schedule
- B. Quality
- C. Communications
- D. Cost
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 17
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
- A. Planning
- B. Executing
- C. Monitoring and Controlling
- D. Project Management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
- A. Changing project specifications continuously
- B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
- C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
- D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 19
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
- A. expert judgment
- B. seller proposals
- C. the project charter
- D. the project management plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 20
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
- A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
- B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
- C. Project schedule network diagram
- D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 21
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
- A. Organizational process assets
- B. Resource availability
- C. Perform Integrated Change Control
- D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 22
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
- A. Integrating all planned activities
- B. Performing the activities included in the plan
- C. Developing and maintaining the plan
- D. Execution of deliverables
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 23
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