Q1. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption protects
A. data at rest.
B. the source IP address.
C. data transmitted.
D. data availability.
Answer: C
Q2. The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are
A. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management
B. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
C. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology
Answer: A
Q3. HOTSPOT
Which.Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification.handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
Answer:
Q4. To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information, which of the following would be the LEAST effective process for eliminating data prior to the media being discarded?
A. Multiple-pass overwriting
B. Degaussing
C. High-level formatting
D. Physical destruction
Answer: C
Q5. Which of the following entities is ultimately.accountable.for data remanence vulnerabilities with data replicated by a cloud service provider?
A. Data owner
B. Data steward
C. Data custodian
D. Data processor
Answer: A
Q6. Refer.to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
Given the number of priorities, which of the following will MOST likely influence the selection of top initiatives?
A. Severity of risk
B. Complexity of strategy
C. Frequency of incidents
D. Ongoing awareness
Answer: A
Q7. What is the PRIMARY difference between security policies and security procedures?
A. Policies are used to enforce violations, and procedures create penalties
B. Policies point to guidelines, and procedures are more contractual in nature
C. Policies are included in awareness training, and procedures give guidance
D. Policies are generic in nature, and procedures contain operational details
Answer: D
Q8. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing.data-in-use controls?
A. If the data is lost, it must be decrypted to be opened.
B. If the data is lost, it will not be accessible to unauthorized users.
C. When the data is being viewed, it can only be printed by.authorized users.
D. When the data is being viewed, it must be accessed using secure protocols.
Answer: C
Q9. What type of test assesses a Disaster Recovery (DR) plan using realistic disaster scenarios while maintaining minimal impact to business operations?
A. Parallel
B. Walkthrough
C. Simulation
D. Tabletop
Answer: C
Q10. The stringency of an Information Technology (IT) security assessment will be determined by the
A. system's past security record.
B. size of the system's database.
C. sensitivity of the system's data.
D. age of the system.
Answer: C